Obviously, Jesus didn’t need to resort to a physical prop in order to heal this man. For instance, in Matthew 15:28 and Luke 17:12-14, Jesus simply spoke healing into the person. But nor was this occurrence of spreading saliva laced mud on someone unique to just this particular man…Jesus healed the deaf & mute man in Mark 7:33 and the blind man in Mark 8:23 in a similar manner. So why did Jesus choose to heal this way? One idea is that in the day both Roman writers & Jewish Rabbis considered saliva to hold “healing properties”…and so Jesus may have used it to communicate His intention to heal the man’s blindness before He actually did it. The other consideration of why Jesus healed this way comes from Genesis 2:7 which says that the Lord God formed man from the dust of the ground & breathed life into him…thus Jesus was paralleling His Heavenly Father’s original creation of man. Whatever the reason, Jesus anointed the blind man’s eyes with mud & his sight, both physical & spiritual, were made new.
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